Two forms of moral scepticism
March 27, 2024
In the last post in this series I articulated in perhaps a slightly more coherent way than previously my reasons for rejecting the ‘Kant-Rousseau’ model of autonomy. This rejection has some potentially unwelcome consequences, though. In this post I want to speak briefly to a couple of them.
The first unwelcome consequence of the approach I’m recommending is that it seems to limit the degree of individual autonomy we can plausibly claim for ourselves. On the Kant-Rousseau model we are, first and foremost, autonomous creatures: your norms are your norms – you have chosen them, as an individual. On the approach I’m recommending, by contrast, a good case can be made that we cannot achieve ‘real’ or full autonomy: our normative commitments – and therefore our normative selves – are chosen, in part, by our social milieu; we are enmeshed in a normative environment from which we cannot fully differentiate ourselves as individuals.
Of course, if you’re one of a range of different kinds of philosophical communitarian, this is a positive feature of the approach I’m recommending, not a negative one. From this communitarian perspective, to reject the Kant-Rousseau model of autonomy is to reject a pernicious ideology that conceals our real nature from ourselves. Our real nature is as community creatures; our selves cannot in fact be separated from community; it is an illusion of bourgeois individualism to think that autonomy is either achievable or desirable. From this perspective, then, the metatheoretical approach I’m recommending should be seen as an invitation to reject the alienating illusions of bourgeois individualism, and re-embrace the communal character of our human natures.
As I’ve said on the blog before, more or less in passing, my stance on this is roughly as follows: I acknowledge that the ‘communitarians’ are right about the non-tenability of the Kant-Rousseau model of autonomy at a metatheoretical level, but I don’t accept that this deals any kind of devastating blow to autonomy – or to other forms of ‘bourgeois individualism’ – as a political or social ideal. I don’t see why we can’t ground ‘first order’ political-ethical individualist commitments within a metatheoretical framework that rejects the philosophically ‘foundational’ role of the Kant-Rousseau autonomy model. Obviously I’ve not done anything much to cash out – or even really elaborate – that position, but that’s my stance, for what little it’s worth. Maybe I’ll come back to this one day.
In this post, though, I want to focus on a second apparent unwelcome consequence of the approach I’m recommending: a form of moral or normative scepticism.
Here I want to make a very basic point, and differentiate between two different things that can be meant by “moral scepticism” – or by “scepticism” in general. Scepticism about X can mean scepticism about the existence of X, or it can mean scepticism about the accessibility or knowability of X. In epistemological scepticism about the ‘external world’, these options would correspond to, on the one hand, scepticism about the existence of the ‘external world’ (some kind of Berkeleyan idealism), and, on the other hand, scepticism about the ultimate knowability of the ‘external world’ (some kind of Kantian idea that the noumenal realm of the in-itself is not knowable, and our knowledge relates to the phenomenal realm alone).
The forms of normative scepticism that I’ve been addressing myself to on the blog to date almost entirely fall in the first category – scepticism about the existence of norms (“nihilism”). I regard myself, whether rightly or wrongly, as having addressed that form of scepticism, at least to my own satisfaction, and it is largely going into the “done and dusted” bucket, for purposes of blogging. The second form of ‘normative scepticism’ is, however, very different. This isn’t scepticism about the existence of norms, but scepticism about the knowability of norms.
If you’re a ‘strong realist’ about norms, it’s clear enough that this is a kind of scepticism you have to wrestle with. Norms exist ‘out there’ somewhere, and the moral-epistemological question is: how can we know what they are? Let’s say you have a religious metaphysical standpoint in which norms are connected to the divine in some way. (Again, I am maximally ignorant of theology and intend to remain so – there is more than enough to read without dipping into the theological literature – so this is all going to be very half-baked, but so it goes.) In some kinds of religious metaphysics, it’s obvious why there might be a worry that you just don’t know what the right norms are: the gods know, but you do not. At its sceptical extreme, there’s the worry that it might be impossible to know what the right norms are – maybe the divine understanding of the good is beyond the limited human self’s capacity to grasp. Or maybe we are barred from knowing the good by our fallen natures, or by the malicious workings of malign supernatural forces, etc. etc.
If you have a ‘social constructionist’ understanding of normativity, it seems like this kind of thing isn’t going to be a problem. Of course we know what the norms are – we made the norms. Roughly speaking, then, it seems that the form of moral scepticism appropriate to social constructivism is nihilism, while the form of moral scepticism appropriate to strong and/or religiously-inflected normative realism is epistemic scepticism about the accessibility of those norms.
This loose line of reasoning is reinforced by the Kant-Rousseau idea that we are only bound by norms we have acknowledged. Intuitively, on this approach, there’s no fundamental epistemic problem concerning what those norms are.
One of the things Brandom is doing (in both MIE and ASOT) is showing how much room there is for epistemic uncertainty about our norms even within this (‘Kant-Rousseau’) model. For Brandom, we acknowledge binding norms as individuals, but we cannot determine the content of those norms as individuals – that determination of content is a social process. We may, therefore, be ignorant of the content of the norms by which we have bound ourselves. This possibility of ignorance of the content of our own commitments is then the ‘lever’ that opens Making It Explicit’s formal concept of objectivity: the standing possibility of a gap between what we think we are committed to and what we actually are committed to permits us to always formally differentiate our norms from any given set of normative attitudes at all.
Fine. But this model still sharply limits the degree to which we could ‘lack contact’ with the relevant norms: we must in some sense acknowledge the norms that bind us, or they don’t bind us in the first place.
Now – what if we move away from this ‘Kant-Rousseau’ position, and adopt a metatheoretical stance whereby norms can be successfully instituted by people other than those upon whom the norms are (genuinely) binding? On the approach I’m following here, we might have ‘first order’ normative reasons to believe that this scenario will not normally obtain – but there is no metatheoretical reason to rule it out. In this framework, we can in principle rightly see a norm as binding upon someone, even if the person in question does not in any sense acknowledge that norm. (Here, then, we need to talk about “obligations”, not “commitments”, since no commitment has been undertaken but the norm in question still binds.)
If we adopt this approach, then we are confronted by the spectre of a form of moral or normative scepticism that is very close to the problem confronted by strong normative realists. The problem is this: what if the right norms – the norms we ought to adopt – simply aren’t norms that have been instituted by our community of practice? We can imagine our way back into the historical past, into societies where norms that we ourselves regard as bedrock weren’t even really on the moral-philosophical table. We feel (or at least we may feel) that it is possible to pass normative judgement on those societies, from our current normative standpoint. And yet it’s unclear how a member of those societies is meant to have had access to the social perspective from which such judgement can be passed. This, of course, raises (‘relativising’) questions of what normative attitudes to take (now) to members of those societies. But this problem also ‘relativises’ our own normative stance. We can imagine some other normatively distant society adopting a similar judgemental perspective towards our own current norms. Imagining the possibility of this perspective can play a similar ‘formal’ role to the role played in Brandom’s account by our standing knowledge of the possibility that our own current sense of the content of our commitments might not be accurate. But, again, we are here not dealing just with the content of our commitments, but with the question of whether these are even the right commitments – whether our entire normative framework is the right one.
This reflexive perspectival shift therefore opens up a ‘relativisation’ that is stronger than the forms of ‘relativisation’ Brandom’s apparatus addresses. If we follow the route I am recommending, this ‘relativisation’ does not lead to a relativism that leads in turn to nihilism – that’s not the category of problem we’re dealing with. Rather, this is a problem of moral epistemology: what if we are completely wrong about the correct normative stance, from top to bottom? Just as Descartes imagined a scenario in which we know nothing empirically – all our sensory input is deceptive – so this raises the spectre of a scenario in which we know nothing normatively – all our normative judgements and perspectives are fundamentally awry. This is a ‘secular’ version of a gnostic worry that what we mistakenly believe to be a divine source of normative guidance is actually a malign demiurge, or some such. Here we’re worrying that our community, which has formed us normatively, is evil through and through, and the right norms have been instituted by a community to which we have no social access.
Of course, Descartes believed he had resolved his sceptical worries by finding a source of judgement within the self to which those worries did not apply. And, normatively speaking, this is more or less the Kantian strategy. Kant says – look, we can’t be fundamentally lacking access to the correct source of normative judgement, because the moral law is necessarily implied by the structure of any and all rational creatures. Provided you are rational (and thus a normative creature at all) you have access to the basic moral law. This is the Kantian strategy for dealing with the spectre of this kind of worry in moral epistemology – and it’s a strategy that is (very roughly speaking) also adopted by Brandom, as well as by various other figures in this kind of liberal critical-theoretic tradition (e.g. Habermas).
I’m rejecting this strategy. My rejection operates by analogy with my rejection of the Cartesian solution to epistemological scepticism about the empirical world. In regular epistemological terms, the stance I recommend has two dimensions. First, a thoroughgoing fallibilism. I recommend adopting the idea that what it means to know something is to not know it for sure. It is baked into our concept of knowledge that it isn’t perfect knowledge. (If it were known with true certainty, then it wouldn’t be part of the space of legitimate discursive challenge, and therefore wouldn’t be the kind of thing we should treat as having any epistemic authority, either.) Then (second) the critique of Cartesian scepticism is that it is a hyperbolic scepticism – it regards an impossible level of certainty as the criterion of knowledge as such. Once this hyperbolic criterion has been dropped, the question becomes not “do we know for sure that we’re not being deceived by a malicious demon?” but rather “is there any reason to think that this is a scenario worth taking very seriously?” On this more reasonable epistemic standard, Cartesian hyperbolic scepticism goes into the box of “ok, sure, I guess in principle it’s possible, but so what?” Nevertheless, a salutary awareness that we always might be wrong about anything is important to adopting a set of non-dogmatic epistemic standards in general.
I think something like this applies in the moral-philosophical realm too. We should reject both the idea that we have some intrinsic built-in moral guidelines associated with being thinking creatures at all and the idea that the absence of such a standard is a reason to adopt a hyperbolic scepticism about all our norms in general. The possibility that our own moral standards might be seen as monstrous by another community whose norms it would be proper to see as better than ours, if only we had access to them, is a salutary reminder of the importance of moral-philosophical humility, but it is not a reason to treat the normative standards we do have access to with hyperbolic scepticism. Obviously this is quite a hand-wavy position, but something in this broad moral-philosophical space seems compelling to me. Like the Brandomian social-perspectival understanding of objectivity via the formal difference between de dicto and de re commitments, this perspective opens a standing uncertainty about our moral stances – but this uncertainty (in fallibilist spirit) is the reason moral commitments have the ability to bind us at all – without this possibility we couldn’t properly treat them as objective. When we talk about the ‘objectivity’ of moral stances, we mean not that there is a divine will which resides outside the human realm; rather, we mean that it is always possible that there could exist a community from the perspective of which we could properly see our own norms on any given issue as profoundly flawed.
There’s more to say on all of this, and I’ll try to come back to it in the future, but this post is already getting a little long, so I think this will do for now.
Autonomy and normative statuses
March 25, 2024
Ok. This is the first in a short series of posts in which I want to do a few things. First, I want to revisit my critique of the ‘Kant-Rousseau’ dimension of Brandom’s argument in ‘A Spirit of Trust’, and hopefully articulate my objections to this position a little more clearly. Then I want to talk about some of the implications of my preferred alternative to this ‘Kant-Rousseau’ approach. In particular, my preferred approach opens the spectre of a form of moral scepticism that Brandom’s own position cuts off at the pass. Then I’ll start to talk about why I don’t think this form of moral scepticism should be seen as a fundamental problem with my preferred alternative approach.
Start by backing up and discussing again one dimension of the Kantian idea of autonomy. At the start of Chapter 9 of ‘A Spirit of Trust’ Brandom discusses the early modern traditions of theorising freedom that Hegel is picking up and developing. These traditions culminate:
in the idea of normativity in terms of autonomy that Kant develops out of Rousseau’s notion of freedom. This is the idea that “[o]bedience to a law one has prescribed for oneself is freedom.” Kant endorses this thought about freedom, and puts it to a new use: distinguishing normative constraint, characterized by freedom, from nonnormative compulsion. According to this line of thought, one is genuinely normatively bound only by norms one has oneself acknowledged as normatively binding. That makes the status of being a normative subject, being liable to assessment according to norms, an essentially self-conscious achievement. For taking oneself to be normatively bound (adopting such a normative attitude) shows up as an essential component of being normatively bound (having a normative status).
ASOT 265
Now, in interpreting this passage and others like it, I think it is important to understand that Brandom’s argument is operating at two different levels. First of all, we have the ‘basic’ level of moral philosophy. Here the idea is that one is only bound by norms one has chosen to bind oneself by. At this level of the argument, we are already in a normative space, and the question is which norms are binding upon us (answer: only those we acknowledge as binding). At the second level of the argument, we are concerned with a ‘deeper’ philosophical question of what norms even are – how norms come to exist in the first place. Brandom’s claim is that Hegel adopts, or transforms (or ‘hacks’) the first-order moral-philosophical Kant-Rousseau account of which norms are binding upon us, to provide an answer to the general philosophical question of what norms even are. The answer to that question is: norms are things that we institute ourselves – we make norms binding upon ourselves. In other words, an argument that begins as a way of differentiating between binding and non-binding norms has been repurposed into an argument that differentiates between the normative and the non-normative tout court.
Ok. Now. I endorse this second level of Brandom’s argument. I think that norms are instituted in practice, and there are no norms that we have not in some sense instituted. (Obviously “in some sense” is bearing a lot of weight here, but god knows I’ve spent enough time over the last fifteen years trying to cash out that clause on the blog, and I’m just going to treat that end of things as solid, established ground from here on out.) That’s all fine by me. My claim for a little while now, however, has been that Brandom’s argument sort of bundles the the first-order moral-philosophical claim into the metatheoretical claim adapted from it, and that this is unwarranted: the first-order moral-philosophical claim is in fact false, and the fact that a true and insightful metatheoretical apparatus has been constructed out of an adapted version of it is neither here nor there.
Moreover, my claim is that this first-order moral-philosophical claim is false for Hegelian reasons. Shifting back to the metatheoretical level now, Brandom-Hegel’s argument goes something like this. Begin with Kant: Kant just fiats that sapient creatures possess the fundamental faculty of being able to normatively bind themselves. For Kant this feature of sapient creatures is just a bedrock fact about us; it is in a sense untheorised.
Hegel is unsatisfied with this dimension of Kant’s argument. Hegel wants to know where this ability to bind ourselves by norms comes from. And Hegel answers as follows: this capacity is itself socially instituted. For Hegel, our ability to bind ourselves by norms is itself a normative status that has been granted us by other normative actors treating us as normative actors. Moreover, this is the only way the normative status of being a normative actor can be instituted. For this reason, normative actors come into existence only when an entire community of normative actors ‘bootstraps’ itself into the space of norms by treating its members as normative creatures. This is Hegel’s reciprocal recognitive account of the institution of normativity.
Good – I endorse all of this, and moreover endorse Brandom’s version of all this. But what does the act of treating someone as a normative actor consist in? Here, I want to argue, Brandom-Hegel is committed to an ultimately untenable distinction between the formal and the substantive dimensions of this category of normative attitude.
Recall that one of Hegel’s central objections to Kant’s approach is a critique of Kantian ‘formalism’. Hegel consistently argues that Kant’s formal categories cannot actually possess the formal content that they do without that formal content being supplied in part by the categories’ non-formal elaboration in semantic practice. Brandom reworks this Hegelian critique of formalism in his entire approach to logical semantics. In Brandom’s semantics, material inference comes first – that is, the kind of inference from substantive claim to substantive claim that we make in day-to-day, ground level reasoning. Then, for Brandom, formal inference – the kind of inferential relations expressed in formal logic – is a way of explicitating or expressing the inferential practices that are already present in our material inferences. (This is Brandom’s logical expressivism.) Brandom therefore rejects a distinction between form and content that draws a sharp line between the formal and the substantive, or that sees the substantive as being slotted into a pre-existing formal framework. The semantic content of formal inferences can be found in material inferences. This approach informs Brandom’s general interpretive or analytic strategy of “semantic descent”.
Ok. I endorse all of this too. But I think Brandom-Hegel’s adoption of the (first-order, moral-philosophical) Kant-Rousseau account of autonomy contravenes this ‘methodological’ approach. In ‘A Spirit of Trust’ Brandom-Hegel seems to imply that normative actors can attribute (and thereby successfully institute) the normative status of “being a normative actor” in a way that does not institute any additional substantive first-order normative statuses. That is to say, social actors can treat another social actor as a normative actor ‘pure and simple’, without thereby instituting any specific normative obligations or entitlements.
I want to argue that this is, if not exactly incoherent, at least strongly in tension with the entire thrust of Brandom’s theoretical approach. Much better and more consistent, in my view, to adopt the following position: normative actors grant the status of being a normative actor by (successfully) attributing actual substantive obligations and entitlements; the formal status of “being a normative actor” then immediately follows from being an actor that has obligations and entitlements. This means that those ‘originary’ obligations and entitlements must be successfully instituted by normative actors other than the actor to whom they are attributed. This in turn means that it cannot be the case that we are only bound by norms that we have bound ourselves to – it must be possible (even necessary?) for at least some of our obligations and entitlements to ‘precede’ our own acts of normative self-binding. And this is so because it is the existence of these ‘originary’ (non-chosen) obligations and entitlements that makes us into normative actors in the first place.
This theoretical move, if adopted, is much more ‘communitarian’ than the Kantian approach. I don’t have much enthusiasm for (or indeed knowledge of) the theoretical traditions that emerge out of this communitarian approach. I am not a communitarian, and I want to preserve as much space for individual autonomy within my theoretical framework as I reasonably can. But in my view the strong distinction between the formal and the substantive that seems to be implied by Brandom-Hegel’s retention of the (first-order, moral-philosophical) Kant-Rousseau account of autonomy just isn’t going to work. We need to accept, in my view, that our formation as normative actors involves us ‘coming into the normative world’ with obligations and entitlements already instituted by that world, which we had no say in as autonomous moral actors.
Now, if I knew more about Heidegger I could probably talk about “thrownness” here – and in general I assume that there is a vast philosophical literature that thematises this kind of thing. Maybe at some point I’ll get around to reading more of that literature. For now, though, I just want to again mark that this is one of the areas where I depart from Brandom.
In the next post in this series I’ll talk about one of the (apparent?) unpleasant implications of this departure.